Using the binomial distribution, it is found that there is a:
The formula is:
[tex]P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}[/tex]
[tex]C_{n,x} = \frac{n!}{x!(n-x)!}[/tex]
The parameters are:
Researching the problem on the internet, it is found that:
The probability that both are allergic is P(X = 2), hence:
P(X = 2) = 0.06^2 = 0.0036.
0.0036 = 0.36% probability that both are allergic to pollen.
The probability of at least one is:
P(X >= 1) = 1 - P(X = 0) = 1 - 0.94^2 = 1 - 0.8836 = 0.1164.
0.1164 = 11.64% probability that at least one is allergic to pollen.
More can be learned about the binomial distribution at https://brainly.com/question/24863377