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What is true about the relationship between explicit measures of prejudice and behavior, and the relationship between implicit measures of prejudice and behavior

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There are different kinds of statement. What is true about both statement is that they both have  predictive validity.

  • Note also that Explicit measure of prejudice is known to be a stronger predictor of behaviors and judgments that are said to not be part of the ones that are socially sensitive. e.g. consumer and political preferences.
  • Implicit prejudice is known to be a stronger predictor of behavior that are said to be socially sensitive e.g. inter-racial relationship.

What is  predictive validity?

This is known to be the Ability of explicit and implicit factors of prejudice to be about to tell any discriminatory behaviors or judgements

In testing for predictive validity of explicit and implicit measures of prejudice, researchers often notes the behavioral effects of prejudice.

Whether explicit or implicit, prejudice is said to be able to predict the behaviors of one toward any targets of prejudice.

Learn more about prejudice from

https://brainly.com/question/25189630

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